Are all sins equal? In one sense, yes, in other ways no. That might sound like heresy to some Christians, but there is a lot of sloppy thinking on this subject. For that reason I am giving the link to an excellent piece that J. I. Packer penned on this very important subject.
posted by Royal
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ReplyDeleteNice article, it made me think of studying about the origin of sin. Here goes:
ReplyDeleteThus the origin of sin according to Gen. 3 ought not to be sought so much in an overt action (2:17) with (3:6)but in an inward, God-denying aspiration of which the act of disobedience was the immediate expression. As to the problem of how Adam & Eve could have been subject to temptation had they not previously known sin. Scripture does not enter into extended discussion. However, in the person of Jesus Christ it witnesses to a man who, though without sin, was subject to temptation "in every respect as we are". The ultimate origin of evil is part of the "mystery of lawlessness", but an arguable reason for scripture's relative silence is that a "rational explanation" of the origin of sin would have the inexitable result of directing attention away from the scripture's primary concern, the confession of "my personal guilt". In the end, sin, by the nature of the case, cannot be "known objectively"; "sin posits itself".
The wrath of God remains upon all who, seeking to thwart God's redemptive purpose, are disobedient to God's Son, through whom alone such justification is rendered possible.